Post by mony on Aug 1, 2005 0:59:14 GMT 2
Answer: There is much confusion in consideration of this question. It is a frequently asked question and rightfully so. And because of the nature of the question, there are various answers that are given in reply. I believe that the answer is not all that difficult if all the Scripture relating to Christ's death and what is said about Him after His death, are taken into proper context.
The Hebrew word used for hell in the Old Testament is "Sheol." It simply means the "place of the dead" or the "place of departed souls/spirits." The New Testament Greek word that is used for hell is "Hades", the place of the dead, or in both instances, the "grave" or "the place of the departed souls/spirits." The word "Hades" refers to the realm of the dead, a temporary place where they await the resurrection. Revelation 20:11-15 in the NASB or the NIV give a clear distinction between the two. Hell is the permanent and final place of judgment for the lost. Hades is a temporary place.
The passages in which the word occurs (Matthew 11:23; 16:18; Luke 10:15; 16:23; Acts 2:27, 31) make it clear that Hades was formerly in two divisions, the abodes respectively of the saved and the lost. The former was called “Paradise” and “Abraham's bosom.” The lost were separated from the saved by a "great gulf fixed" (Luke 16:26). The Paradise side of Hades has been emptied. When Jesus ascended to Heaven, he took the occupants of Paradise (believers) with Him. The lost side of Hades has remained unchanged. All unbelieving dead go there awaiting their final judgment in the future.
Some of the confusion has arisen from such passages as Psalm 16:10-11. This is a Messianic Psalm (referring to Jesus Christ) which reads, "For thou (Father God) wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption....Thou wilt show me the path of life..." This word hell here is used in the sense of the grave (Hades). Jesus said years later on the Cross to the thief beside Him, "Today, thou shalt be with Me in Paradise" (Hades). His body was in the tomb; His soul/spirit was in Paradise. A New Testament passage is Acts 2:27 which says, "Because Thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. Christ in His humanity "went and preached to the spirits in prison" (the lost fallen angels, in my opinion). Christ in His deity, would not look upon the corruption side of Hades (the sinful lost). Christ the God-Man could do this in His sovereignty.
Did Christ descend into the hell of Revelation 20? No! The Apostle's Creed is another instance where it states that Christ "He descended into hell." He descended into Hades, which is often confused with hell in many translations of Scripture. The final abode is hell. "Whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire" (Revelation 20:14,15). Also, nowhere in the Bible are we told that Jesus visited hell. (It is the Bible translators that have helped to confuse this issue by using the word hell). Acts 2:31 says that He went to "Hades" (New American Standard Bible), but "Hades" is not hell.) Keep in mind the words "Sheol" (Hebrew) and the Greek word "Hades" mean "the place of departed souls."
It was the death of Jesus on the Cross and His suffering in our place that sufficiently provided for our redemption. It was His shed blood that substantiated our own cleansing from sin (1 John 1:7-9). As He hung there on the Cross He took the sin burden of the whole human race upon Himself. "He became sin for us" (2 Corinthians 5:21 states: "For He hath made Him to be sin for us Who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him." These aspects of Paul's concept of imputation are seen in this passage. In verse 19 God imputes not iniquity (Psalm 32:2). Here he imputes sin to Christ, the spotless Lamb of God (John 1:29; 1 Peter 1:19). This imputation helps us understand Christ's struggle in the garden of Gethsemane with the cup of sin which would be poured out upon Him on the cross. The imputation of righteousness then is bestowed upon the believer based upon the merits of Jesus Christ (Romans 3:24,25).
When Jesus cried upon the Cross, "Oh Father, why have You forsaken Me?" It was then He was separated from the Father because of the sin poured out upon Him. As He gave up His spirit He said, "Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit." His suffering was completed in our stead. His soul/spirit went to Paradise side of Hades. The payment for sin was paid and Jesus had no need to go to hell (the place of final judgment--lake burning with fire and brimstone). He now awaited the resurrection of His body and return to His glory which He had given up when He came to earth to provide redemption's plan and complete the work that the Father had sent Him to do. No, Jesus did not go into the final place of judgment reserved for Satan, the fallen angels, and all unbelievers who rejected Him.
The Hebrew word used for hell in the Old Testament is "Sheol." It simply means the "place of the dead" or the "place of departed souls/spirits." The New Testament Greek word that is used for hell is "Hades", the place of the dead, or in both instances, the "grave" or "the place of the departed souls/spirits." The word "Hades" refers to the realm of the dead, a temporary place where they await the resurrection. Revelation 20:11-15 in the NASB or the NIV give a clear distinction between the two. Hell is the permanent and final place of judgment for the lost. Hades is a temporary place.
The passages in which the word occurs (Matthew 11:23; 16:18; Luke 10:15; 16:23; Acts 2:27, 31) make it clear that Hades was formerly in two divisions, the abodes respectively of the saved and the lost. The former was called “Paradise” and “Abraham's bosom.” The lost were separated from the saved by a "great gulf fixed" (Luke 16:26). The Paradise side of Hades has been emptied. When Jesus ascended to Heaven, he took the occupants of Paradise (believers) with Him. The lost side of Hades has remained unchanged. All unbelieving dead go there awaiting their final judgment in the future.
Some of the confusion has arisen from such passages as Psalm 16:10-11. This is a Messianic Psalm (referring to Jesus Christ) which reads, "For thou (Father God) wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption....Thou wilt show me the path of life..." This word hell here is used in the sense of the grave (Hades). Jesus said years later on the Cross to the thief beside Him, "Today, thou shalt be with Me in Paradise" (Hades). His body was in the tomb; His soul/spirit was in Paradise. A New Testament passage is Acts 2:27 which says, "Because Thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. Christ in His humanity "went and preached to the spirits in prison" (the lost fallen angels, in my opinion). Christ in His deity, would not look upon the corruption side of Hades (the sinful lost). Christ the God-Man could do this in His sovereignty.
Did Christ descend into the hell of Revelation 20? No! The Apostle's Creed is another instance where it states that Christ "He descended into hell." He descended into Hades, which is often confused with hell in many translations of Scripture. The final abode is hell. "Whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire" (Revelation 20:14,15). Also, nowhere in the Bible are we told that Jesus visited hell. (It is the Bible translators that have helped to confuse this issue by using the word hell). Acts 2:31 says that He went to "Hades" (New American Standard Bible), but "Hades" is not hell.) Keep in mind the words "Sheol" (Hebrew) and the Greek word "Hades" mean "the place of departed souls."
It was the death of Jesus on the Cross and His suffering in our place that sufficiently provided for our redemption. It was His shed blood that substantiated our own cleansing from sin (1 John 1:7-9). As He hung there on the Cross He took the sin burden of the whole human race upon Himself. "He became sin for us" (2 Corinthians 5:21 states: "For He hath made Him to be sin for us Who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him." These aspects of Paul's concept of imputation are seen in this passage. In verse 19 God imputes not iniquity (Psalm 32:2). Here he imputes sin to Christ, the spotless Lamb of God (John 1:29; 1 Peter 1:19). This imputation helps us understand Christ's struggle in the garden of Gethsemane with the cup of sin which would be poured out upon Him on the cross. The imputation of righteousness then is bestowed upon the believer based upon the merits of Jesus Christ (Romans 3:24,25).
When Jesus cried upon the Cross, "Oh Father, why have You forsaken Me?" It was then He was separated from the Father because of the sin poured out upon Him. As He gave up His spirit He said, "Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit." His suffering was completed in our stead. His soul/spirit went to Paradise side of Hades. The payment for sin was paid and Jesus had no need to go to hell (the place of final judgment--lake burning with fire and brimstone). He now awaited the resurrection of His body and return to His glory which He had given up when He came to earth to provide redemption's plan and complete the work that the Father had sent Him to do. No, Jesus did not go into the final place of judgment reserved for Satan, the fallen angels, and all unbelievers who rejected Him.